Polygamy in the bible
Posted: Sun Dec 04, 2016 7:07 pm
Why do some Christans defend polygamy?
mia doesn't mean one it means first in 1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6
The word "idios" signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or "ownership" (although sometimes the two words may be synonymous, the change up in this verse is very significant). Many times it is used as a corporate simple possessive, like in John 1:11 where John says "He came unto his "own" ("idios), and his "own" ("idios") received him not," or John 16:32, "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his "own" ("idios"), and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me," or John 19:17, "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his "own" ("idios") home". The idea is that there were others who were involved with the "ownership". They are "sharing" him!
he Greek word for "own" (heautou) in the phrase "have his own wife" indicates that the man's wife was a personal exclusive possession to the extent that a man possesses a wife. The Greek word for "own" (idios) in the phrase "have her own husband" is not exclusive. Apparently idios carries the idea of a communal or shared ownership
Elders and deacons are to be the husbands of ONE wife"! (1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6)
First of all, this passage is not addressed to all believers in Christ, but applies only to elders and deacons. Period. We cannot take something that only applies to a specific group of men, and apply that too all men in general. This would be taking a verse out of its context.
Secondly, notice, these passages do not say "only" one wife. The Greek word that "one" is translated from here is word #3391, mia, and is also translated as "a" or "the first" in other parts of scripture. Thus the emphasis would be that an elder needs to be a married man, having children, and that he must not have divorced his first wife.
For example, in the following passages, the word "a" is the same word translated "one" above:
Matthew 21:19,"And when he saw a fig tree in the way..."
Matthew 26:69, "Now Peter sat without in the palace: and a damsel came unto him...",
Revelation 9:13, "And the sixth angel sounded, and I heard a voice..."
How corrected is this?
mia doesn't mean one it means first in 1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6
The word "idios" signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or "ownership" (although sometimes the two words may be synonymous, the change up in this verse is very significant). Many times it is used as a corporate simple possessive, like in John 1:11 where John says "He came unto his "own" ("idios), and his "own" ("idios") received him not," or John 16:32, "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his "own" ("idios"), and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me," or John 19:17, "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his "own" ("idios") home". The idea is that there were others who were involved with the "ownership". They are "sharing" him!
he Greek word for "own" (heautou) in the phrase "have his own wife" indicates that the man's wife was a personal exclusive possession to the extent that a man possesses a wife. The Greek word for "own" (idios) in the phrase "have her own husband" is not exclusive. Apparently idios carries the idea of a communal or shared ownership
Elders and deacons are to be the husbands of ONE wife"! (1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6)
First of all, this passage is not addressed to all believers in Christ, but applies only to elders and deacons. Period. We cannot take something that only applies to a specific group of men, and apply that too all men in general. This would be taking a verse out of its context.
Secondly, notice, these passages do not say "only" one wife. The Greek word that "one" is translated from here is word #3391, mia, and is also translated as "a" or "the first" in other parts of scripture. Thus the emphasis would be that an elder needs to be a married man, having children, and that he must not have divorced his first wife.
For example, in the following passages, the word "a" is the same word translated "one" above:
Matthew 21:19,"And when he saw a fig tree in the way..."
Matthew 26:69, "Now Peter sat without in the palace: and a damsel came unto him...",
Revelation 9:13, "And the sixth angel sounded, and I heard a voice..."
How corrected is this?