Polygamy in the bible

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Polygamy in the bible

Postby SayaOtonashi on Sun Dec 04, 2016 7:07 pm

Why do some Christans defend polygamy?

mia doesn't mean one it means first in 1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6



The word "idios" signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or "ownership" (although sometimes the two words may be synonymous, the change up in this verse is very significant). Many times it is used as a corporate simple possessive, like in John 1:11 where John says "He came unto his "own" ("idios), and his "own" ("idios") received him not," or John 16:32, "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his "own" ("idios"), and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me," or John 19:17, "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his "own" ("idios") home". The idea is that there were others who were involved with the "ownership". They are "sharing" him!

he Greek word for "own" (heautou) in the phrase "have his own wife" indicates that the man's wife was a personal exclusive possession to the extent that a man possesses a wife. The Greek word for "own" (idios) in the phrase "have her own husband" is not exclusive. Apparently idios carries the idea of a communal or shared ownership

Elders and deacons are to be the husbands of ONE wife"! (1 Timothy 3:2,12; Titus 1:6)

First of all, this passage is not addressed to all believers in Christ, but applies only to elders and deacons. Period. We cannot take something that only applies to a specific group of men, and apply that too all men in general. This would be taking a verse out of its context.

Secondly, notice, these passages do not say "only" one wife. The Greek word that "one" is translated from here is word #3391, mia, and is also translated as "a" or "the first" in other parts of scripture. Thus the emphasis would be that an elder needs to be a married man, having children, and that he must not have divorced his first wife.

For example, in the following passages, the word "a" is the same word translated "one" above:

Matthew 21:19,"And when he saw a fig tree in the way..."
Matthew 26:69, "Now Peter sat without in the palace: and a damsel came unto him...",
Revelation 9:13, "And the sixth angel sounded, and I heard a voice..."

How corrected is this?
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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby Metacrock on Tue Dec 06, 2016 12:17 am

mia, and is also translated as "a" or "the first" in other parts of scripture. Thus the emphasis would be that an elder needs to be a married man, having children, and that he must not have divorced his first wife.

there is no Greek word for "a'a in the sense of an indefinite article. it's formed by they absence of the deviate article.,

ho stratoigos = "the Gerneal"

stratiogos = a general. the definite article Ho (spelled omicron with rough breathing mark) is "the" without it it;s "a."

the sense of the passage is only one wife. true the point is they should be married but married to only one,
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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby Metacrock on Tue Dec 06, 2016 12:22 am

in all the things Paul says about marriage there is no hint that marriage is more than one spouse. I think by the time of Christ the Jews had come to accept a one spouse model of marriage. perhaps it's cultural. I don't think this is a major issue for the NT church, but it is illegal in America to have more than one.
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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby SayaOtonashi on Thu Feb 09, 2017 10:28 pm

One person told me ten virgin parable is polygamy. What does it mean? She also points to Augustine and Luther defending polygamy.
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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby Metacrock on Fri Feb 10, 2017 2:10 am

SayaOtonashi wrote:One person told me ten virgin parable is polygamy. What does it mean? She also points to Augustine and Luther defending polygamy.


I would have to see the quote's( doubt it. Ten virgins is not a parable about miscarriage,
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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby SayaOtonashi on Fri Feb 10, 2017 2:21 pm

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Re: Polygamy in the bible

Postby Metacrock on Sat Feb 11, 2017 10:58 am



First of all Luther and Augie are not the Bible., What they say is only to be considered as helpful commentary not Holy writ.

Luther did not say all Christians can do Polygamy,he said the prince can because he's an exception because God put him in charge. The reason he said that is because the prince protected him from the church. Now what do i think of this? I think Luther was an asshole, so I don't care what he said.

Augie said polygamy is ok if the law allows it. I still it;s in violation of the meaning of Christian marrage, But is it a sin? That;s another question.
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