Hello KRW,
Thanks for responding.
Considering "good" like that-- as an absolute value-- can any true good really be "destroyed"? I'm thinking of a passage I can't quite locate right now, but I'll paraphrase, "The righteous perish, and no one takes it to heart, that they are taken away from trouble, and enter into peace."
First, I don't contend for good being considered an absolute value. I believe
truth in its purest form is absolute. Good is a
derivative of truth. What I intended to convey in the previous post was that all and any true goods are derived from absolute truth; hence, it would be inconsistent with God to destroy good for in doing so, He would be enacting an evil, which is contrary to His essence and nature.
The verse you refered to stands outside the view of the OP because it refers to individuals instead of examining good on its own merits. The righteousness found in human beings is not an absolute characteristic or property, it is a judicial title. We're all a mixed bag of truth and falsity. When we move the focus from good per se as a stand-alone property to its existence in complex organisms (people, for instance), the proper focus is lost.
I really don't want to let this thread go spinning off into an open theism debate, but since you and others here appear at heart to be proponents of OT thought and continue bringing this thinking into the thread, it may become nigh impossible to continue this discussion.
Reducing the Gen 18 [and, if one is to be consistent, all Biblical accounts] to an 'open' view effectively disintegrates the nature of Biblical investigation as to its possession of spiritual truth, imo. In omniscience, God is sovereignly in control of His creation, including His word. Here, He weaves truth into the fabric of His word to be gleaned by His children, in axioms, types, etc. I believe He has endued the Gen 18 account with the spiritual principle I contend for, which is metaphysical and ethical in nature. If God doesn't know the future, it's hard to see how any typology or the implementation of spiritual truths via figurative language can come to exist by God's hand in the Bible--if perceived at all, they must, if I understand the open view correctly, exist by pure accident. By accepting the truth of His omniscience, the path is open to inspecting the Scriptures to see what God is saying. Conversely, by modifying God's omniscience to an open methodology one seems to necessarily remove oneself from considering any such manipulation of history (and by association, the Bible's truth) in this or any spiritual topic. OT thus, if omniscience is truth, rewrites the meaning (truth) of Scripture to suit her tastes (man's autonomy). In short, it appears the OT interpretive methodology precludes reading the Bible as a spiritually endued book.
Hence, if God
does endue Scripture with truth in those ways tradition has come to understand and teach that He does--by His sovereignty and omniscience--and OT insists that history unfolds blindly on its own, and the Bible be investigated with this presupposition, we stand, it seems to me, at a fork in the road. I suspect this thread is fast drawing to its end. Thanks to those who contributed!